Question for the Lawyers Out There
Most cities have laws requiring homeowners to shovel and otherwise maintain the sidewalks in front of their homes. And here’s something I’ve always wondered: why are such laws not considered a violation of the Constitutional prohibition against involuntary servitude? If the sidewalk in front of my house belongs to the city, then maintaining it should be the city’s responsibility, not mine. And if the sidewalk belongs to me, then why am I not only required to let complete strangers trespass on my property, but to make sure said trespassers can trespass comfortably?